Thursday, April 19, 2007

Question to Historian, Educator, George Grant

I heard your lecture on Islam given at the Vision Forum conference on History. You said to the effect, "Every Islamic country that exists today was conquered through military might, violence, and coercion." I have been telling this to a lot of people. If this is true, then it's a pretty startling track record of Islam: not one example of a Jonah or a St. Patrick in Islamic history. Jonah is the Old Testament example of a nation turning from sin through preaching alone: AfterJonah preached of the pending judgement of God to the ancient Ninahvites--the king and all his people--repented of their sins individually and as a nation. But on the contrary, every Islamic nation by your account was forced to turn and bow towards Mecca by means of the sword.

Someone responded recently to me by saying "Malaysia and Indonesia are two Muslim majority countries that were never invaded any Muslim armies. India remained under Islamic rule for 1000 years, but most of the ruler were secular. Emperor Akbar had Hindu wives and started his own religion. Islam spread their because of Muslim saints. If Islam spread by force, then 1000 years of rule in India and 400 years of rule in Spain should have been sufficient to convert both nations to Islam."

My questions to you are 1. Can you provide me the list of currently existing Islamic countries you had in mind when you made that statement, and can you provide the historical circumstances that led to their Islamic majority, and 2. How did Malaysia become Islamic, and 3. to what extent historically has India been under Islamic rule?

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